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1. A 63-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after he injured his abdomen.
While working on a house, he fell 1 m from a scaffold and landed on a metal pipe. He is clinically stable but reports localized abdominal pain. On examination, he has a 17-cm laceration to his abdomen in the left hypochondrium. The laceration is 4 cm deep, but there is no fascial laceration. Which one of the following is the best next step?
A) Surgical debridement and delayed closure.
B) Primary repair of the laceration.
C) Abdominal computed tomography.
D) Exploratory laparotomy.
E) Antibiotic irrigation of the wound.
2. A 53-year-old man with a history of bipolar I disorder is brought to the office by his family. Recently, he has been sleeping for 4 to 5 hours per night, has been fidgety, and is increasingly preoccupied with his granddaughter ' s safety. Five days ago, he consulted with your physician colleague and was instructed to exercise and meditate. Last night, he was found running in the street and attempted to hit a relative who was trying to calm him down. His son is dissatisfied with your physician colleague ' s management. Which one of the following is the most appropriate response?
A) Encourage the son to file a complaint.
B) Share that you would have prescribed a medication after the first assessment.
C) Acknowledge your physician colleague ' s mistake and apologize.
D) Point out that exercise and meditation have been proven useful in managing bipolar I disorder.
E) Explain that you will now assess the father and that your goal is to treat him.
3. A 32-year-old woman, gravida 0, comes to your office for contraception counselling, specifically about insertion of a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device. She has a past history of breast cancer and is presently on tamoxifen. Which one of the following is the best advice for your patient?
A) After consultation with her oncologist, she may choose this option
B) She has a high risk of irregular bleeding following insertion
C) This device will increase her risk of future infertility
D) It may increase her risk of breast cancer recurrence
E) She will require pre-procedure antibiotics
4. A 56-year-old woman presents to your office with a 9-month history of intolerable sweating, palpitations, and periodic anxiety. Her last period was 12 months ago. She continues to have regular Papanicolaou testing with no worrisome pathology. She is otherwise healthy. Which one of the following is the most effective treatment for these symptoms?
A) Regular exercise, weight loss and smoking cessation
B) Antidepressant agent
C) Low-dose clonidine
D) Estrogen in combination with progesterone
E) Evening primrose oil
5. A 70-year-old woman had a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy 2 days ago.
On examination today, her vital signs are as follows: She has been immobile since her operation. She is fatigued but is tolerating a full diet. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient ' s fever?
A) Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis.
B) Atelectasis
C) Bowel trauma during the operation.
D) Wound infection.
E) Pulmonary embolism.
Solutions:
| Question # 1 Answer: B | Question # 2 Answer: E | Question # 3 Answer: A | Question # 4 Answer: D | Question # 5 Answer: B |
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