[Q20-Q42] Updated Aug-2026 Exam Engine or PDF for the Oracle 1Z0-1080-26 test to help you quickly prepare for the Oracle exam!

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Updated Aug-2026 Test Engine or PDF for the Oracle 1Z0-1080-26 test to help you quickly prepare for the Oracle exam!

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NEW QUESTION # 20
You want to include Named Assets in Capital.
Which two tasks can you perform when enabling Named Assets?

  • A. Increase the number of named assets after enabling Named Assets.
  • B. Decrease the number of named assets after enabling Named Assets.
  • C. Add the names of assets to plan at the detail level.
  • D. Specify the likely number of tangible and intangible assets that you want to add in a planning cycle.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024's Capital module, enabling Named Assets allows planning for specific, individually tracked assets (e.g., equipment, buildings) rather than generic asset categories. The two tasks you can perform when enabling Named Assets are:
A . Add the names of assets to plan at the detail level: Correct. When enabling Named Assets, you can specify the names of individual assets (e.g., "Truck A," "Building 1") to plan their costs, depreciation, and other details at a granular level.
B . Specify the likely number of tangible and intangible assets that you want to add in a planning cycle: Incorrect. While you estimate a maximum number of Named Assets during enablement, you don't specify them by tangible/intangible categories-the distinction is managed later in asset planning, not at enablement.
C . Decrease the number of named assets after enabling Named Assets: Incorrect. Once Named Assets is enabled with a maximum number, you cannot decrease this limit directly; it requires reconfiguration or disabling/re-enabling the feature, which is not a standard task.
D . Increase the number of named assets after enabling Named Assets: Correct. After enablement, you can increase the maximum number of Named Assets (e.g., from 100 to 150) via the Configure card, allowing more assets to be added as needed.
The Oracle documentation confirms that A (adding asset names) and D (increasing the count post-enablement) are supported tasks for Named Assets, making them the correct answers.
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Enabling Named Assets in Capital" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-09-20).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Capital Named Assets Configuration" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-10, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 21
You are preparing to design a report in Cloud EPM Planning using Report Designer. Which two statements are true about data sources in reports?

  • A. Control the way a report object is printed on the page relative to other report objects.
  • B. Insert charts in the report header to provide a quick visual summary of data.
  • C. Insert a report object into the report if you are in Modify mode.
  • D. Include a chart in your report without displaying the underlying data grid.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
When designing reports in Oracle Cloud EPM Planning using Report Designer, data sources and report objects (e.g., grids, charts) have specific capabilities. The two true statements about data sources in reports are:
A . Insert charts in the report header to provide a quick visual summary of data: Incorrect. Report Designer does not support inserting charts directly into the report header; charts are added as objects within the report body, linked to data sources.
B . Include a chart in your report without displaying the underlying data grid: Correct. You can create a chart object tied to a data source (e.g., a grid) and configure it to display only the chart, suppressing the grid for a cleaner visual presentation.
C . Control the way a report object is printed on the page relative to other report objects: Correct. Report Designer allows you to adjust the layout and positioning of report objects (e.g., grids, charts) relative to each other, controlling how they appear when printed or exported.
D . Insert a report object into the report if you are in Modify mode: Incorrect. While you modify reports in Report Designer, there's no specific "Modify mode" restriction-objects can be inserted during initial design or edits, but this is not a data source-specific feature.
The Oracle documentation verifies that B and C reflect Report Designer's flexibility with data sources and object management, making them the correct answers.
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Designing Reports with Report Designer" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-09-30).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Report Designer Data Sources" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-12-05, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 22
How do you add custom dimensions when you enable features?

  • A. By renaming a dimension in Map/Rename Dimensions
  • B. By creating a new dimension in Application Overview
  • C. By adding a new dimension with the Data Management
  • D. By adding a new dimension to the cube in Create and Manage Dimensions

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 23
What is the purpose of selecting the Project Benefits option when enabling Projects?

  • A. Track the Workforce expense benefits calculated on each Contract project.
  • B. Plan detailed project expenses for projects.
  • C. Help justify the need for projects and plan nonfinancial benefits.
  • D. Plan detailed project revenue for Contract projects.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 24
Which three are required when enabling Flexible Account Mapping in Workface?

  • A. For Mapping Level, specify whether the mapping should be done at the Global level (the same mapping for every entity) or at the Entity level.
  • B. Map Salary and Merit from Workface to the same account in Financials and Projects.
  • C. Enable Financials and the Financials Expense planning option to enable this feature.
  • D. Enable Flexible Account Mapping only when you bring your own chart of accounts in Financials.
  • E. Specify whether Mapping Drivers should be based on Grade or on Defaults for the application.

Answer: A,C,E


NEW QUESTION # 25
Which two can be used to push data between cubes?

  • A. Data Maps
  • B. Copy Data
  • C. Import Data
  • D. Data Integration

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, pushing data between cubes (e.g., from one cube to another within the same application) can be accomplished using specific tools. The two methods that facilitate this are:
A . Data Integration: Incorrect. Data Integration is used to import data from external sources (e.g., files, other systems) into Planning, not to push data between cubes within the same application.
B . Data Maps: Correct. Data Maps allow you to define mappings and push data between cubes (or applications) using Smart Push or manual execution. This is a primary method for intra-application data movement.
C . Copy Data: Correct. The Copy Data feature enables administrators to copy data from one cube to another within the same Planning application, specifying dimensions and members to transfer.
D . Import Data: Incorrect. Import Data is designed to bring external data into a cube from a file, not to push data between existing cubes.
Both Data Maps (with Smart Push for real-time updates) and Copy Data (for batch-style transfers) are explicitly supported for moving data between cubes, as per Oracle's documentation, making B and C the correct answers.
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Moving Data Between Cubes" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-09-05).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Data Maps and Copy Data Features" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-12-25, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 26
Your administrator set up a Free Form application. Which two Statements describe FreeForm Applications?

  • A. FreeForm application enables you to import an Essbase OTL or application snapshot that includes with system-restricted names
  • B. FreeForm applications use an open dimensional cube construct, which enables you to create cubes with any dimension combination that you need in your BSO or ASO cube
  • C. You can create FreeForm applications by migrating Essbase Lifecycle Management snapshots to an Oracle Cloud Enterprise Performance Management.
  • D. Using FreeForm applications, you can model and build your own Hybrid BSO or ASO cube while preserving the ability to leverage Planning functionalities

Answer: B,D


NEW QUESTION # 27
As a Service Administrator, you use application diagnostics at design time to identify, and resolve design flaws before an application is placed into production. Service Administrators can use application diagnostics to evaluate which three of the following?

  • A. Migration snapshots
  • B. Types of artifacts such as forms and approval units
  • C. Error log files
  • D. An entire application
  • E. Individually selected artifacts

Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:
As a Service Administrator in the context of Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation, application diagnostics is a critical tool used at design time to ensure that applications are free of design flaws before they are deployed into production. This functionality allows proactive identification and resolution of issues, ensuring application stability and performance as it evolves with new members and data. According to the Oracle documentation, application diagnostics empowers Service Administrators to evaluate specific aspects of an application comprehensively.
D . An entire application: Application diagnostics can assess the full scope of an application, providing a holistic view of its design integrity. This includes checking all components and their interactions to pinpoint systemic flaws that might affect performance or functionality once the application is live.
C . Individually selected artifacts: Service Administrators can focus diagnostics on specific artifacts within the application, such as individual forms, rules, or other components. This granular evaluation helps isolate and address issues in particular elements without needing to analyze the entire application.
E . Types of artifacts such as forms and approval units: The diagnostics tool allows evaluation based on categories or types of artifacts. For example, it can specifically analyze forms, approval units, or other artifact types to ensure they meet design standards and function correctly within the application's workflow.
The options A. Error log files and B. Migration snapshots are not explicitly mentioned as evaluable components within the scope of application diagnostics at design time in the Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation documentation. Error log files are typically associated with runtime troubleshooting rather than design-time diagnostics, while migration snapshots pertain to application migration processes rather than design flaw identification.
Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud Documentation: "About Application Diagnostics" (docs.oracle.com, published 2018-03-22, updated as of 2024). This section states that "Application diagnostics enables Service Administrators, at design-time, to identify and resolve design flaws before an application is placed in production" and can evaluate "an entire application" and specific artifacts.
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: Application diagnostics section confirms the ability to assess "entire applications" and "individual or types of artifacts such as forms and approval units" to ensure design integrity.
These Reference:s align with the capabilities described for Service Administrators using application diagnostics in the Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation framework.


NEW QUESTION # 28
Which three principles of assigning permissions to artifacts, rules and folders are valid?

  • A. Users and Power Users have Write permissions to all dimension members and to all artifacts.
  • B. Users who are assigned permissions to a folder can access the items in that folder, unless they are assigned.
  • C. Users and Power Users can work only with members to which they have permissions.
  • D. Users and Power Users can design artifacts.

Answer: B,C,D


NEW QUESTION # 29
Which three statements are true about importing metadata from a flat file into Planning?

  • A. When selecting to clear members during import, any member not specified is deleted from the outline after importing the dimension unless it is an ancestor of a member that was specified, or is a base member of a shared member that was specified.
  • B. You can import data forms, dashboards, and infolets by loading a local import file or an import file from the Inbox server.
  • C. You can use the import file functionality to import more metadata or to perform incremental updates from the source system.
  • D. Your import file must contain a list of metadata records. Each metadata record contains a delimited list of property values that matches the order designated in the header record.
  • E. You can rename or delete members of attribute dimensions during a metadata import.

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, importing metadata from a flat file into Planning involves specific rules and capabilities. The three true statements are:
A . You can rename or delete members of attribute dimensions during a metadata import: Incorrect. Metadata imports update dimension members (e.g., adding, updating properties), but renaming or deleting attribute dimension members is not directly supported via flat file import-it requires manual action or a separate process.
B . You can import data forms, dashboards, and infolets by loading a local import file or an import file from the Inbox server: Incorrect. Flat file imports are for metadata (e.g., dimensions, members), not artifacts like forms, dashboards, or infolets, which are managed via Migration or Application tools.
C . Your import file must contain a list of metadata records. Each metadata record contains a delimited list of property values that matches the order designated in the header record: Correct. The import file format requires a header defining properties (e.g., Name, Parent) and subsequent records with delimited values (e.g., CSV) matching that order, a standard requirement for metadata imports.
D . When selecting to clear members during import, any member not specified is deleted from the outline after importing the dimension unless it is an ancestor of a member that was specified, or is a base member of a shared member that was specified: Correct. When the "Clear Members" option is selected, unspecified members are removed, but ancestors of specified members and base members of shared members are retained to maintain hierarchy integrity.
E . You can use the import file functionality to import more metadata or to perform incremental updates from the source system: Correct. Metadata imports support both full loads and incremental updates, allowing administrators to add or modify members as needed from a source system.
The Oracle documentation verifies that C, D, and E accurately describe the metadata import process, making them the correct answers.
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Importing Metadata from Flat Files" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-10-05).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Metadata Import Guidelines" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-11-25, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 30
In Strategic Modeling, you have a deficit and want to balance the model.
Which two statements describe funding options you can take when you have a deficit and want to balance the model?

  • A. You can decrease Preferred to balance the model.
  • B. You can decrease Dividends or Assets to balance the model.
  • C. You can increase Contra-Equity to balance the model.
  • D. You can increase Debt or Equity to balance the model.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024's Strategic Modeling module, balancing a model with a deficit involves adjusting funding options to ensure cash flow or balance sheet equilibrium. When there's a deficit (e.g., insufficient cash), you can either increase inflows or decrease outflows. The two valid statements are:
A . You can decrease Preferred to balance the model: Incorrect. "Preferred" typically refers to preferred stock (an equity component), but decreasing it (e.g., reducing preferred equity) would not directly increase available funds to cover a deficit-it might even worsen it by reducing capital.
B . You can increase Debt or Equity to balance the model: Correct. Increasing Debt (e.g., issuing loans) or Equity (e.g., issuing stock) provides additional funds to cover a deficit, a common strategy in Strategic Modeling to balance cash needs.
C . You can decrease Dividends or Assets to balance the model: Correct. Decreasing Dividends reduces cash outflows, retaining more funds, while decreasing Assets (e.g., selling assets) generates cash inflows, both helping to balance the model.
D . You can increase Contra-Equity to balance the model: Incorrect. Contra-Equity (e.g., treasury stock) reduces total equity when increased (e.g., buying back shares), which decreases available funds, not helping to balance a deficit.
The Oracle documentation highlights that increasing Debt/Equity or decreasing Dividends/Assets are standard funding options in Strategic Modeling to address deficits, making B and C the correct statements.
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Balancing Models in Strategic Modeling" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-09-15).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Funding Options in Strategic Scenarios" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-12-10, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 31
Which two permissions are assigned when a model is first created in Strategic Modeling?

  • A. Power User permissions
  • B. Viewer permissions
  • C. Owner permissions
  • D. Default permissions

Answer: C,D


NEW QUESTION # 32
Which two are use cases for Smart Push?

  • A. Allow users to update data in reporting cube after saving data in the planning web form
  • B. Allow the application to schedule when to synchronize data
  • C. Allow users to update data in another cube on demand
  • D. Allow users to run Smart Push in forms to move data from source aggregate storage cubes.

Answer: A,C


NEW QUESTION # 33
You want to analyze past data and predicted data to help you find patterns and insights into data that you might not have found on your own. To accomplish this, you configure Insights with Auto Predict.
Which two are Oracle EPM guidelines for implementing Insights and Auto Predict?

  • A. For future data, create a new insight by leveraging templates that include insight definitions.
  • B. For historical data, create the Insights job using the lowest level of Period members possible so that the greatest amount of historical data can be used.
  • C. For future data, first run predictions in a test environment to ensure there is no impact on production data.
  • D. For historical data, there should be at least twice the amount of historical data as the number of prediction periods.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, configuring Insights with Auto Predict allows users to analyze past and predicted data to uncover patterns and insights. Oracle provides specific guidelines to ensure effective implementation:
A . For future data, create a new insight by leveraging templates that include insight definitions: Incorrect. While templates can be used to set up Insights, this is not a specific Oracle guideline for implementing Auto Predict. Auto Predict relies on historical data and predictive algorithms, not predefined insight templates for future data.
B . For historical data, there should be at least twice the amount of historical data as the number of prediction periods: Correct. Oracle recommends having sufficient historical data-specifically, at least twice the number of periods you intend to predict-to ensure the accuracy of Auto Predict's machine learning algorithms. For example, predicting 12 months requires at least 24 months of historical data.
C . For historical data, create the Insights job using the lowest level of Period members possible so that the greatest amount of historical data can be used: Incorrect. While granularity matters, Oracle does not mandate using the lowest level of Period members (e.g., days instead of months) as a guideline. The focus is on the quantity of historical data, not necessarily the lowest level of aggregation.
D . For future data, first run predictions in a test environment to ensure there is no impact on production data: Correct. Oracle advises testing Auto Predict in a non-production environment to validate results and avoid unintended impacts on live data, aligning with best practices for predictive analytics deployment.
The two guidelines-B and D-are explicitly outlined in Oracle's documentation for Insights and Auto Predict to ensure reliable predictions and safe implementation.
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Configuring Insights and Auto Predict" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-10-15).


NEW QUESTION # 34
You want to create dashboards with Dashboards 2.0. Which two statements are true about designing in Dashboards 2.0?

  • A. You can include chart types such as Waterfall, Pyramid and Geomap and new subchart types for Radar, Combination and Gauge.
  • B. The total amount of data that's allowed to be visualized in a chart is a total of 1,000 cells.
  • C. There is an upper limit of 15 members across all dimensions that can be selected to create a chart using quick analysis.
  • D. You can include a maximum of 12 components.

Answer: A,D


NEW QUESTION # 35
Which three are use cases for data maps?

  • A. To create a replicated partition between cubes
  • B. To allow users to drill back to the data in a different cube
  • C. To push data from a planning cube to a reporting cube
  • D. To integrate data between custom plan types and Planning modules
  • E. To integrate data between Planning modules

Answer: C,E


NEW QUESTION # 36
You want to create a dashboard to provide an overview at the beginning of the planning and forecasting process. You create a dashboard with Dashboard 1.0. Which three statements are true about Dashboard 1.0?

  • A. You can add hierarchical labels in charts.
  • B. You can switch easily between using the design environment and the runtime environment.
  • C. You can include multiple forms that dynamically update, including their associated charts.
  • D. You can include user variables in the global PV bar and the local POV.
  • E. You can use a logarithmic scale in relevant chart types.

Answer: B,C,D


NEW QUESTION # 37
Which three are Navigation Flow customization categories?

  • A. Role
  • B. User
  • C. Group
  • D. Global
  • E. Artifact

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, Navigation Flows can be customized to tailor the user interface and experience based on specific categories. The three customization categories supported are Role, Group, and Global:
A . Role: Navigation Flows can be customized for specific user roles (e.g., Planner, Administrator), allowing different layouts or access to cards based on job functions.
C . Group: Customization can be applied to user groups, enabling administrators to assign tailored navigation flows to predefined sets of users based on their team or department.
E . Global: Global customization applies to all users across the application, serving as the default navigation flow unless overridden by Role or Group settings.
B . User: This is incorrect because Oracle Planning does not support navigation flow customization at the individual user level-customizations are broader, targeting roles or groups.
D . Artifact: This is incorrect because "Artifact" refers to application components (e.g., forms, rules) managed in migration, not a category for navigation flow customization.
The Oracle documentation confirms that Role, Group, and Global are the three levels at which navigation flows can be customized, providing flexibility in how users interact with the Planning application.
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Customizing Navigation Flows" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-08-30).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Navigation Flow Administration" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-12-05, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 38
You want to associate Insights with calendar events to associate with the insights so you can use the in IPM Insights, Auto Predict definitions, and Predictive Planning. Which two statements are true about incorporating events in IPM insights?

  • A. After creating events, you cannot choose to skip the historical data spikes or falls, so that the data for the event is always included in the analysis.
  • B. Events are typically one-off or recurring events that historically led to spikes or declines in data.
  • C. When you use events, spikes or falls in data are automatically normalized and distributed over the analysis period.
  • D. Using events helps you plan ahead for the events and take advantage of opportunities by allowing you to see anticipated spikes and falls in the insight data for specific events.
  • E. All events are taken into consideration during prediction regardless of active or inactive status.

Answer: B,D


NEW QUESTION # 39
As an Identify domain administrator, you can manage users in Oracle Identity Management and assign predefined roles to users while creating them. When a user has access to Cloud EPM Planning, Service Administrators can grant roles to many users at the same time. Which two statements are true about user and group security?

  • A. Assigning roles at the business process level can only enhance the access rights of users.
  • B. Service users and groups cannot be members of groups maintained in Access Control.
  • C. Access control lists predefined roles as groups.
  • D. Assigning roles at the business process level can reduce the access rights of users.

Answer: A,C


NEW QUESTION # 40
You want to allocate project expenses to one or more capital assets.
Which two statements describe what you need to set up in Projects or Capital to share the data?

  • A. In Capital, on the Enable page, in Map/Rename Dimensions, add a custom dimension called Project.
  • B. In Projects, under Expenses, select Integration with Capital.
  • C. In Capital, under Expenses, select Integration from Projects.
  • D. In Projects, on the Enable page, enable projects of type Capital.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
To allocate project expenses to one or more capital assets in Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation, integration between the Projects and Capital modules must be established. Two specific setup steps are required to enable this data sharing:
B . In Projects, under Expenses, select Integration with Capital: This step activates the integration feature within the Projects module's Expenses section, allowing project expenses to be allocated to capital assets. It ensures that expense data flows from Projects to Capital for association with specific assets.
D . In Projects, on the Enable page, enable projects of type Capital: Enabling "Capital" as a project type on the Projects Enable page allows the system to recognize projects that are capital-related, facilitating the linkage of expenses to capital assets. This step defines the scope of projects eligible for integration with Capital.
A . In Capital, under Expenses, select Integration from Projects: Integration is configured from the source module (Projects) to the target (Capital), not the other way around. Capital receives data but does not initiate the integration.
C . In Capital, on the Enable page, in Map/Rename Dimensions, add a custom dimension called Project: Adding a custom dimension in Capital is unnecessary for this integration. The standard integration process relies on predefined mappings, not custom dimensions.
Both B and D are necessary to fully set up the allocation of project expenses to capital assets, as they address enabling the project type and activating the expense integration.
Oracle Enterprise Performance Management Cloud Documentation: "Administering Projects - Integration with Capital" (docs.oracle.com, updated 2024). Confirms that "Integration with Capital under Expenses" and "enabling Capital project types on the Enable page" are required to share project expenses with Capital.
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: Lists these two steps as essential for allocating project expenses to capital assets.


NEW QUESTION # 41
Which item CANNOT be pushed between cubes using data maps?

  • A. Attachments
  • B. Comments
  • C. Supporting detail
  • D. Data change history

Answer: D

Explanation:
In Oracle Planning 2024, data maps with Smart Push or manual execution can push various types of data between cubes within the same application or across applications. However, not all items can be transferred. The item that cannot be pushed is:
A . Comments: Incorrect. Comments (cell-level annotations) can be pushed between cubes using data maps, provided the mappings include the necessary dimensions.
B . Attachments: Incorrect. Attachments linked to data cells can be transferred via data maps, as long as the target cube supports them and the mapping is configured correctly.
C . Data change history: Correct. Data change history (audit trails tracking who changed what and when) is not transferable via data maps. It is metadata tied to the source cube's audit log, not a pushable data element.
D . Supporting detail: Incorrect. Supporting detail (breakdowns of aggregated values) can be pushed between cubes if the target cube is configured to accept it and the mapping includes it.
The Oracle documentation specifies that data change history is excluded from data map transfers, as it's a system-maintained log, not a user-editable or movable data type, making C the correct answer.
Oracle Planning 2024 Implementation Study Guide: "Data Maps and Pushable Items" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2024-10-05).
Oracle EPM Cloud Documentation: "Smart Push Capabilities" (docs.oracle.com, Published 2023-12-15, updated for 2024).


NEW QUESTION # 42
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Full 1Z0-1080-26 Practice Test and 122 unique questions with explanations waiting just for you, get it now: https://prepaway.vcetorrent.com/1Z0-1080-26-valid-vce-torrent.html